The geometric distribution is related to the binomial distribution. In the latter, we considered the probability of $x$ "successes" occuring after $n$ trials with a fixed binary probability of success of $p$. In the geometric distribution, we ask a slightly different question: In a series of binomial trials with fixed probability (Bernoulli trials), what is the probability that success will occur on the xth trial?
This is often a useful question to ask. For example, in the U.S., about 6% of all physicians (there are about a million of them at any given time) are pediatricians. So we might ask, "What is the probability that if I query physicians randomly, the fifth one will be a pediatrician?" We'll figure out how to answer that question here.
If the probability of success in a geometric situation is $p$, then the probability of failure — provided that each trial is independent of the others — is $1-p$. If we're asking for the probability that success occurs on the xth trial, then we need to have failure on the first $x-1$ trials, then the success. Mathametically that is
$$P(X=x) = (1-p)^{x-1} p ,$$
where $X$ is our random variable, and $x$ is the value of $X$ for which we seek the probability.
In our example above that proabability would be
$$ \begin{align} P(X=5) &= (1-p)^{x-1} p \\[5pt] &= (1-0.06)^{5-1}(0.06) \\[5pt] &= 0.94^4 (0.06) = 0.0468 \end{align}$$
or about a 4% chance.
Now let's look at a portion of the distribution by calculating probabilities of finding a pediatrician on the first, second, third, and so on ... trials.

Notice a few things about this graph:
The probability of success after $x$ trials of a binary (Bernoulli) experiment with probability of success $p$ is
$$P(X=x) = (1-p)^{x-1} p$$
where $x = 1, \; 2, \; 3, \; \dots$.
The mean and variance of this distribution is
$$\mu_X = \frac{1-p}{p} \phantom{000} \text{and} \phantom{000} \sigma^2 = \frac{1-p}{p^2}$$
Consider flipping a fair coin. Calculate the probabilies that
$$ \begin{align} P(X=3) &= (1-p)^{3-1}p \\[5pt] &= (1-0.5)^2 0.5^1 \\[5pt] &= 0.125 = 12.5\% \end{align}$$
The probability of tossing heads for the first time on the third flip is 12.5%.
(b) The probability of tossing heads in either toss 1, 2 or 3 is the sum of probabilities,
$$P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=1)$$
That is
$$ \begin{align} P &= 0.5^2 \cdot 0.5 + 0.5^1 \cdot 0.5 + 0.05^0 \cdot 0.5 \\[5pt] &= 0.125+0.250+0.5 = 0.875 \end{align}$$
There is an 87.5% chance that the first heads will be thrown within the first three tosses. Here's a graph of the distribution. The red bars represent the total probability referred to in part (b).

A company with a computer network experiences network failures in about 10% of weeks. Let's say that the leaders of the company would like to know the probability that the company can go 5 weeks or longer without experiencing a failure.
$$ \begin{align} P(X=5) &= (1-p)^{5-1}(p) \\[5pt] &= (1-0.1)^{5-1}(0.1) \\[5pt] &= 0.0656 \approx 6.6\% \end{align}$$
If we'd wanted to know the probability that a network failure (a "success" in this problem) would occur in the sixth week, we'd caclulate
$$ \begin{align} P(X=6) &= (1-p)^{6-1} p \\[5pt] &= (1-0.1)^5 (0.1) \\[5pt] &= 0.059 \approx 6\% \end{align}$$
There would be about a 6% chance of the failure falling in week 6. To get the proabability that the network would last longer than 5 weeks, we'll have to sum the first five probabilities, then subtract the sum from 1:
$$ \begin{align} P(X\gt 5) &= 1-[P(X=1) + P(X=2) + \\[5pt] &P(X=3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5)] \\[5pt] &= 1-[0.9^4(0.1)+0.9^3(0.1)+0.9^2(0.1) + \\[5pt] & \phantom{000} 0.9^1(0.1) + 0.9^0(0.1)] \\[5pt] &= 0.5905 \approx 60\% \end{align}$$
So there's about a 60% chance that the network will operate failure-free for longer than 5 weeks.
Here's a look at the binomial distribution with $p=0.1$. The bar for $X=6$ is highlighted.

Consider rolling a six-sided die.
Answer here
Consider rolling a six-sided die.
Answer here
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